A prospective tenant for my rental house signed the lease with a signature that is illegible (except for the first letter of his first name). There are no other legible letters. Would the lease still be considered a legally signed document?
Answer
Yes, it could well be, depending upon the other relevant facts and evidence that
may be pertinent to the issue, but, why would you want to risk it?
In other words, would it not make more sense under the facts described to call this prospective leasee back in to sign another lease---this time in a more legible fashion?
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